Posted 1 year ago on Feb. 20, 2012, 2:29 p.m. EST by craigdangit
This content is user submitted and not an official statement
It implies that voting rights are linked to the amount of taxes that a person pays. I had a con tell me yesterday that it would follow logically that people who don't pay Federal taxes should not be allowed to vote in Federal elections. I didn't know what to say. Thoughts?