Forum Post: This is why the banks get bailouts.
Posted 13 years ago on Oct. 28, 2011, 7:24 a.m. EST by Durka223
(38)
This content is user submitted and not an official statement
I've been reading these topics and their replies for a couple of weeks now, and one thing that stands out in my mind is a common misconception about the bailing out of banks. I will relate my explanation to the GFC or 'great financial crisis' as it has been coined.
I'll try to keep this explanation quite succinct. And for the record i am a fence-sitter in regards to the OWS movement. Perhaps if the demands were clearer, i would decide. That's a different kettle of fish however and so here goes:
When a large amount of people begin to miss payments on their loans and declare bankruptcy (for whatever reason), a large strain is placed upon the bank which has loaned out this money and relied upon it's return with interest. This causes a bank to lose stability, and possibly collapse.
The collapse of one bank can essentially cause a 'domino effect'. Banks depend on stability provided by the public's confidence in them. Increasing foreclosures and declarations of bankruptcy decrease the public's confidence as a whole in the banking system. This causes for instance, a wave of withdrawals of people's savings, for the fear of the safety of their money (this is not necessarily what occurred in the US, however it CAN cause a bank collapse and as such is an example). The resulting strain upon other banks will inevitably cause them to collapse. The reasons for this are quite complex and varied, however it is a probable outcome.
Bottom line: banks collapse, economy collapses and the public is faced with skyrocketing unemployment and a rapidly decreasing standard of living. Famines can inevitably result.
The US is however not a free market economy. It is essentially a mixed market economy, in which banks run under regulation and constraints provided by the government. In order to prevent banks from collapsing, the Government provides certain banks with bailouts (a loan with interest) in order to keep their function 'fluid', ensuring for instance that they can still provide loans. These loans are essential in most people's buying of a house/car or starting businesses.
Bailouts are essentially not 'Government's helping out their banker friends'. Bailouts ensure the stability and function of the nation as a whole.
In conclusion: Bailout = Most keep their jobs, are able to buy food and eat, receive student loans for an education etc. No bailout = A large majority of the population stare at their empty dinner plates all day because they can no longer find jobs, receive an education etc.
Id like to finish by saying that despite whether or not i agree with the protests, i commend you for fighting for what you see as injustice in this world. It is lucky that you live in a country which allows you to speak out against the government without fear of oppression, allows your voice to be heard quite loudly, and does not quell protests with some of the force we have seen during the Arab Spring uprisings. All i aimed to do in this post was to educate as to why banks receive bailouts, and silence the incorrect assumption that they are a 'free payout for greedy banks'.
Thank you and good day.
-BY THE WAY IF ANYTHING IS INCORRECT PLEASE DON'T HESITATE TO COMMENT!
Extended Info and some questions. - I will add to these if people raise important points or questions.
Why were only some banks given bailouts, while smaller banks were left to crumble? The reasons behind this are simple, if merciless. Banks (or financial institutions) that were given bailouts, such as AIG, were seen to have a large and negative economic effect if they collapsed. Small banks would have relatively no effect, and so were not bailed out. Even large banks such as Lehman Brothers were seen to have little effect on the economy if they collapsed, and so were not given bailouts. Lehman brothers collapsed.
Why weren't the bank executives that engaged in unethical or illegal lending practices prosecuted? Really this depends as to the laws and general mindset of the federal government. In short: i do not know.
Have these banks paid back these bailouts? According to my knowledge most banks have either completely paid off these debts or are in the process of finalizing their payments. It's better to do your own research on this.
Weren't many of these banks,uuummmm, "encouraged" by the government, to give out loans to many people, especially minorities, who it was almost inevitable, weren't ever going to be able to pay them back? To me that sounds like "government regulation", instituted by "Mr. Conservative" George Bush, caused a huge problem. Ironically then, the sheeple voted for a president who was/is far more likely to push for much more socialist regulation. The sheeple are clueless and their votes are bought with the best bumper sticker slogans. Seems to me the government needs to BUTT OUT, not do more.
I doubt that they were encouraged and i would ask politely for you to show me a legitimate source that claims this. Unless the Government was economically suicidal that would not occur.
"Seems to me the government needs to BUTT OUT, not do more." Are you referring to the bailouts?
I was referring to George Bush's policies FORCING loans to people who were never going to be able to afford them.
No one was forced loans. Legislation was passed to however make it easier for lenders to offer these doubtful loans. You sign on the dotted line. Signing constitutes by your saying something like "I understand and consent". NO ONE is forced to take out loans.
No. They were forced to GIVE loans. It wasn't Legislation "to make it easier", it was designed to make people happy because they could get a mortgage and have their own homes for awhile beofre they couldn't make payments anymore.
What legislation are you talking about. The changes to the CRA did not require banks to take out high-risk loans. If you are going to keep making these claims i suggest you back yourself up with some credible evidence.
Bank runs aren't caused by depositor withdrawals anymore in the FDIC era. The problem in the GFC was the unregulated so called shadow banking system. Banks and investment banks (no longer firewalled by GS) were heavily invested in both worthless mortgage derivative assets and in "credit default swaps" which are basically insurance. The whole web was so leveraged up, so unregulated and so complex that when it started to go, every lender panicked because there was no telling how far and fast the problem would spread.
I know the reasons behind the problem were varied and much more complex as you have stated, however I've avoided this in an attempt to make the post more accessible to the general populace. I did not refer to the bank runs as being the particular catalyst in the US realm of the GFC. The FDIC bounds only the US, and as such, bank runs in several countries will cause similar effects. The main focus is attempting to provide reasoning as to why bailouts are given - not necessarily the causes of the GFC. I've put in a note of clarification. Thanks.