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Forum Post: If a Rich Man goes bankrupt does he automatically become part of the 99%?

Posted 13 years ago on Oct. 14, 2011, 10:21 a.m. EST by SmallBizGuy (378) from Savannah, GA
This content is user submitted and not an official statement

Does a rich man go from "Evil" to "Good" automatically upon filing for bankruptcy?

6 Comments

6 Comments


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[-] 1 points by WhyIsTheCouchAlwaysWet (316) from Lexington, KY 13 years ago

You're missing the issue at hand by concentrating too hard on the rhetoric (which serves the point of being inclusive, not defining).

[-] 1 points by imbaddakota (42) from Indianapolis, IN 13 years ago

whether a rich man is evil or good depends on who he is as a person, if he sucks as a person rich he will almost surely suck (and probably suck more) broke.

I wish people could file for emotional bankruptcy, lol.

[-] 1 points by cheeseus (109) 13 years ago

If a homeless man wins a $200 million lottery does he become one of the 1%? Does he deserve to have 40% of his winnings handed over to the government?

[-] 1 points by SmallBizGuy (378) from Savannah, GA 13 years ago

That may be a good start at defining "earned income" and "income". Just a thought.

[-] 1 points by imbaddakota (42) from Indianapolis, IN 13 years ago

it would depend on whether he took the cash value or the 20 year payout.

---oh the tax man cometh... always. and death followed him in a white mercedes coupe (or something like that).---